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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 18.06.2025 01:32

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

If everyone in Russia dropped into holes in the ground only never to return, would that be good for NATO and international peacekeepers? Can we convince Russians to be less diabolical, so they coexist? Does Putin stink like doo doo in the commode?

You'll usually find your answer there.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Why do some people prefer watching movies than reading novels even if they are both based on the same source material (book)?

There's no rule.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

What would you change in Rings of Power?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.